do you have something that shows the opposite? i have no stake in this so it doesn’t really matter if you don’t, but it would be interesting to read a counter.
Dr. Prewitt describes it this way: “It’s basically a way of changing your style, dress, or maybe even language or behavior, in order to match what you think would be appropriate or would make someone else feel comfortable.”
Like, the prior sources are good, people are just taking parts clearly labeled “no citation” and chopping it up till it says what they want it to in a quote.
And not at all relevant to the OP where they explicitly say the use of another language was due to forgetting it in a “common” language…
I understand I probably sound frustrated, and I am.
i don’t think anyone is disputing that meaning, and i understand why that would frustrate you because if the timeline is what you say the widening of the term would be ND erasure. but i also heard it in a linguistic context first, which is why i am not questioning the definition, only the time line.
do you have something that shows the opposite? i have no stake in this so it doesn’t really matter if you don’t, but it would be interesting to read a counter.
Besides what’s already been linked?
https://health.clevelandclinic.org/code-switching
Like, the prior sources are good, people are just taking parts clearly labeled “no citation” and chopping it up till it says what they want it to in a quote.
And not at all relevant to the OP where they explicitly say the use of another language was due to forgetting it in a “common” language…
I understand I probably sound frustrated, and I am.
i don’t think anyone is disputing that meaning, and i understand why that would frustrate you because if the timeline is what you say the widening of the term would be ND erasure. but i also heard it in a linguistic context first, which is why i am not questioning the definition, only the time line.